[Nomad]

Originally Posted by spot

Isn't the question rather whether he's more likely to re-offend in this regard when compared to the average American? Either he's learned his lesson and been rehabilitated or he hasn't and isn't. The alternative is to say everyone convicted of a crime has lost some portion of his civil rights permanently - by all means, if you want to arrange things so, then arrange them so, it's an arguable position to adopt. It's what Sir Thomas More advocated in Utopia, for example. It's not what the existing legal system is designed for, though I note that disenfranchisement has been tacked onto the US legal framework in recent years as a start toward the permanent criminalisation of convicts.

What ?
The questions I asked are the questions I was interested in hearing the answers to.